XXYYinc.com users access resources using a variety of client devices, some clinic-owned and some personal. A number of applications in the current
environment are not running correctly on certain types of client devices, causing a steady increase in support calls to the Help Desk. The Clinic CIO wants to limit the client devices that can be used to access resources. Because only client devices that can support all of the currently installed applications are members of the
XXyyinc AC domain, limiting access to 1Y0-456 only domain-member devices should solve the problem.
You are requested to create a scan named ” XXyyinc AC Domain” that does the following:
* Ensures only client devices which are members of the XXyyinc AC domain can be used to access resources.
* Runs for the AllUsers logon point.
* Runs against all client devices regardless of the operating system being used on the client device.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Create Endpoint Analysis / Machine Identification Scans / Citrix Scans forDomain Membership

2. Apply to Logon Point

Q: 2
SIMULATION Simulation Exhibit:

XXyyinc Gmbh. Currently uses LDAP for both authentication and authorization through their Citrix Access Gateway Advanced Edition 4.2 deployment. They have just purchased RSA Tokens for external users in order to improve access security.
As part of this upgrade in security, the IT team has decided to use Active Directory for primary authentication and authorization.
You are required to perform the following tasks:
1. Enable all users to use Active Directory for authentication and authorization.
2. External users will be required to use RSA Tokens for secondary authentication.
Answer and Explanation:
1. Edit Logon Point

Q: 3
SIMULATION Simulation Exhibit:

XXYYinc.com is using Access Gateway Advanced Edition to control access to the file shares, network resources and email in the XXYYinc.com corporate office XXYYinc.com wants to be able to improve communication among managers and clerks by providing them access to important corporate information using an internal web site. Because managers and clerks will be using computers which are unsecured to access the information, an additional layer of authentication is
required. The users of the site should be able to 1Y0-456 dumps browse to the URL for the site from external locations whenever needed.
You are required to perform the following tasks:
1. The name of the web site must be XXyyinc News
2. The web site must be listed on the navigation page of the managers and clerks
3. The web site uses cookies and requires NTLM authentication
4. The actual URL of the site should b visible to the users
5. The default policy created during the creating of this resource must be edited to allow only managers and clerks to access the web site.
Answer and Explanation:
Create Web Resources / Select Bypass Web Proxy URL rewriting

Q: 4
SIMULATION Simulation Exhibit:

XXYYinc.com is using Access Gateway Advanced Edition 4.2 to control access to the resources stored on servers at the office. Attorneys and their associates want to be able to securely access their legal briefs and the Legal Reference Library on the servers at the office so they can make updates to the briefs as necessary from both inside and outside the office.
You are required to perform the following tasks:
* A single file share resource named “PM Legal Resources” must be used to make both file shares available through Access Gateway Advanced Edition.
* Both the \\PM\LegalBriefs and \\PM\LegalRefLibrary file shares must be accessible.
* The file shares must be listed on the navigation page for the Attorneys and the
Associates user groups, but not on the navigation page for the Clerks user group.
* The file shares must be available only when accessed through the existing Legal logon point.
Answer and Explanation:
Use Access Suite / Resources / Create File 1Y0-456 study guide Shares and create default Policy

Edit the Policy / Apply to Legal Logon Point / Select Users (Associates usergroups and Attorneys)

Q: 5
You work as a network Administrator at XXYYinc.com. You have recently installed Access Gateway Advanced Edition. You have configured several login points in the Access Suite Console for internal and external access into the environment. Now you want to use the logon points to access specific Presentation Server farms.
What can you edit to specify the Presentation Server farms?

A. The farm properties.
B. The Gateway Appliance node
C. The logon points
D. The Access Gateway node
E. The server properties

Answer: C
Explanation:

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. Both of the above
D. Neither of the above

Answer: B

Q: 2
Which of the following statements is EX0-101 CORRECT for every process?
1. It delivers its primary results to a customer or stakeholder
2. It defines activities that are executed by a single function

A. Both of the above
B. 1 only
C. Neither of the above
D. 2 only

Answer: B

Q: 3
Which of the following is NOT one of the five individual aspects of Service Design?

A. The design of the Service Portfolio, including the Service Catalogue
B. The design of new or changed services
C. The design of Market Spaces
D. The design of the technology architecture and management systems

Answer: C

Q: 4
Which of the following is NOT the responsibility of the Service Catalogue Manager?

A. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is accurate
B. Ensuring that information within the Service Pipeline is accurate
C. Ensuring that information in the Service Catalogue is consistent with information in the Service Portfolio
D. Ensuring that all operational services are recorded in the Service Catalogue

Answer: B

Q: 5
Which of the following statements is CORRECT?

A. The Configuration Management System (CMS) is part of the Known Error Data Base (KEDB)
B. The Service Knowledge Management System (SKMS) is part of the CMS
C. The KEDB and the CMS form part of the larger SKMS
D. The CMS is part of the Configuration Management Data Base (CMDB)

Answer: C

Q: 6
Which of the following questions does Service Strategy help answer with its guidance?
1. How do we prioritize investments across a portfolio?
2. What services to offer and to whom?
3. What are the Patterns of Business Activity (PBA)?

A. 1 only
B. 2 only
C. 3 only
D. All of the above

Answer: D

Q: 7
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of a process?

A. It is measurable
B. Delivers specific results
C. Responds to specific events
D. A method of structuring an organization

Answer: D

Q: 8
Which of the following statements about processes is INCORRECT?

A. A process may define policies, standards and guidelines
B. The definition of Process Control is “The activity of planning and regulating a process, with the objective of achieving Best Practice”
C. The objective of any IT process should be expressed in terms of business benefits and goals
D. The output from a process has to conform to operational norms derived from business objectives

Answer: B

Q: 9
What is a RACI model used for?

A. Performance analysis
B. Recording Configuration Items
C. Monitoring services
D. Defining roles and responsibilities

Answer: D

Q: 10
The group that authorizes changes that must be installed faster than the normal process is called the?

A. CAB Emergency Committee (CAB/EC)
B. Emergency CAB (ECAB)
C. Urgent Change Board (UCB)
D. Urgent Change Authority (UCA)

Answer: B

Q: 11
Contracts relating to an EX0-101 dumps outsourced Data Centre would be managed by?

A. Technical Management
B. Service Desk
C. IT Operations Control
D. Facilities Management

Answer: D

Q: 12
Which Service Design process makes the most use of data supplied by Demand Management?

A. Service Catalogue Management
B. Service Level Management
C. IT Service Continuity Management
D. Capacity Management

Answer: D

Q: 13
Which of the following CANNOT be stored and managed by a tool?

A. Knowledge
B. Information
C. Wisdom
D. Data

Answer: C

Q: 14
The BEST description of the purpose of Service Operation is?

A. To decide how IT will engage with suppliers during the Service Management Lifecycle
B. To proactively prevent all outages to IT Services
C. To design and build processes that will meet business needs
D. To deliver and support IT Services at agreed levels to business users and customers

Answer: D

Q: 15
In which core publication can you find detailed descriptions of Service Level Management, Availability Management, Supplier Management and IT Service Continuity Management?

A. Service Strategy
B. Service Design
C. Service Transition
D. Service Operation

Answer: B

Q: 16
Which of the following sentences BEST describes a Standard Change?

A. A change to the service provider’s established policies and guidelines
B. A change that correctly follows the required change process
C. A pre-authorized change that has an accepted and established procedure
D. A change that is made as the result of an audit

Answer: C

Q: 17
Which process is responsible for discussing reports with customers showing whether services have met their targets?

A. Continual Service Improvement
B. Business Relationship Management
C. Service Level Management
D. Availability Management

Answer: C

Q: 18
What are the three Service Provider business models?

A. Internal Service provider, Outsourced 3rd party and Off-shore party
B. Internal Service Operations provider, External Service Operations provider, Shared Service Unit
C. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Outsourced 3rd Party
D. Internal Service provider, External Service provider, Shared Service Provider

Answer: D

Q: 19 Which is the correct combination of Service Management terms across theLifecycle?

A. 1B, 2C, 3D, 4A
B. 1C, 2D, 3A, 4B
C. 1C, 2B, 3A, 4D
D. 1A, 2B, 3C, 4D

Answer: C

Q: 20
Application Management plays a role in all applications. One of the key decisions to which they contribute is?

A. Where the vendor of an application is located
B. Whether to buy an application or build it
C. Who the vendor of the storage devices will be
D. Should application development be outsourced

Answer: B

Q: 21
How many times should each stage of the Plan, Do, Check, Act (PDCA) cycle be visited?

A. There should be a single Plan and Do, then Check and Act should be carried out multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
B. Each stage should be carried out once in the order Plan-Do-Check-Act
C. The entire cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement
D. There should be a single Plan, then the Do-Check-Act cycle should be repeated multiple times to implement Continual Improvement

Answer: C

Q: 22 Which is the first step in the 7 Step Improvement Process?

A. Prepare for action
B. Define what you should measure
C. Where are we now?
D. Identify gaps in Service Level Agreement (SLA) achievement

Answer: B

Q: 23 Which of the following is NOT a valid objective of Request Fulfilment?

A. To provide information to users EX0-101 study guide about what services are available and how to request them
B. To update the Service Catalogue with services that may be requested through the Service Desk
C. To provide a channel for users to request and receive standard services
D. To source and deliver the components of standard services that have been requested

Answer: B

Q: 24 What is the definition of an Alert?

A. An audit report that indicates areas where IT is not performing according to agreed procedures
B. A type of Incident
C. An error message to the user of an application
D. A warning that a threshold has been reached or that something has changed

Answer: D

Q: 25 In many organisations the role of Incident Manager is assigned to the Service Desk. It is important that the Incident Manager is given the authority to:

A. Only manage Incidents effectively through the 1st line
B. Manage Incidents effectively through 1st, 2nd and 3rd line
C. Only manage Incidents effectively through 1st and 2nd line
D. Only manage Incidents effectively at the 3rd line

Answer: B

Q: 26 Which of the following is NOT part of the Service Design phase of the Service Lifecycle?

A. Produce and maintain all necessary Service Transition packages
B. Produce quality, secure and resilient designs for new or improved services, technology architecture, processes or measurement systems that meet all the agreed current and future IT requirements of the organisation
C. Take the overall Service Strategies and ensure they are reflected in the Service Design process and the service designs that are produced
D. Measuring the effectiveness and efficiency of Service Design and the supporting processes

Answer: A

Q: 27 Which process is responsible for frequently occurring changes where risk and cost are low?

A. Access management
B. Incident Management
C. Release and Deployment Management
D. Request fulfilment

Answer: D

Q: 28 Staff in an IT department are experts in managing specific technology, but none of them know what services are offered to the business. What imbalance does this represent?

A. Extreme focus on responsiveness
B. Extreme focus on cost
C. Vendor focused
D. Extreme internal focus

Answer: D

Q: 29 Which of these statements about Service Desk staff is CORRECT?

A. The Service Desk should try to have a high level of staff turnover as the training requirements are low and this helps to minimise salaries
B. Service Desk staff should be discouraged from applying for other roles as it is more cost effective to keep them in the role where they have been trained
C. The Service Desk can often be used as a stepping stone for staff to move into other more technical or supervisory roles
D. Service Desk staff should be recruited from people who have high levels of technical skill to minimise the cost of training them

Answer: C

Q: 30 Effective release and deployment management enables the service provider to add value to the business by?

A. Delivering change, faster and at optimum cost and minimized risk
B. Ensuring that all assets are accounted for
C. Verifying the accuracy of all items in the configuration management database
D. Ensures that the fastest servers are purchased

Answer: A

2 A security policy would include all of the following EXCEPT
A. Background
B. Scope statement
C. Audit requirements
D. Enforcement
Answer: B

3 Which one of the following is an important characteristic of an information security policy?
A. Identifies major functional areas of information.
B. Quantifies the effect of the loss of the information.
C. Requires the identification of information owners.
D. Lists applications that support the business function.
Answer: A
Explanation:
Information security policies area high-level plans that describe the goals of the procedures. Policies are not guidelines or standards, nor are they procedures or controls. Policies describe security in general terms, not specifics. They provide the blueprints for an overall security program just as a specification defines your next product – Roberta Bragg CISSP Certification Training Guide (que) pg 206

4 Ensuring the integrity of business information is the PRIMARY concern of
A. Encryption Security
B. Procedural Security
C. Logical Security
D. On-line Security
Answer: B
Explanation:
Procedures are looked at as the lowest level in the policy chain because they are closest to the computers and provide detailed steps for configuration and installation issues. They provide the steps to actually implement the statements in the policies, standards, and guidelines…Security procedures, standards, measures, practices, and policies cover a number of different subject areas. – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 44-45

5 Which of the following would be the first step in establishing an information security program?
A. Adoption of a corporate information security policy statement
B. Development and implementation of an information security standards manual
C. Development of a security awareness-training program
D. Purchase of security access control software
Answer: A

6 Which of the following department managers would be best suited to oversee the development of an information security policy?
A. Information Systems
B. Human Resources
C. Business operations
D. Security administration
Answer: C

7 What is the function of a corporate information security policy?
A. Issue corporate standard to be used when addressing specific security problems.
B. Issue guidelines in selecting equipment, configuration, design, and secure operations.
C. Define the specific assets to be protected and identify the specific tasks which must be completed to secure them.
D. Define the main security objectives which must be achieved and the security framework to meet business objectives.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Information security policies are high-level plans that describe the goals of the procedures or controls. Policies describe security in general, not specifics. They provide the blueprint fro an overall security program just as a specification defines your next product. – Roberta Bragg CISSP Certification Training Guide (que) pg 587

8 Why must senior management endorse a security policy?
A. So that they will accept ownership for security within the organization.
B. So that employees will follow the policy directives.
C. So that external bodies will recognize the organizations commitment to security.
D. So that they can be held legally accountable.
Answer: A
Explanation:
This really does not a reference as it should be known. Upper management is legally accountable (up to 290 million fine). External organizations answer is not really to pertinent (however it stated that other organizations will respect a BCP and disaster recover plan). Employees need to be bound to the policy regardless of who signs it but it gives validity. Ownership is the correct answer in this statement. However, here is a reference. “Fundamentally important to any security program’s success us the senior management’s high-level statement of commitment to the information security policy process and a senior management’s understanding of how important security controls and protections are to the enterprise’s continuity. Senior management must be aware of the importance of security implementation to preserve the organization’s viability (and for their own ‘due care’ protection) and must publicly support that process throughout the enterprise.” -Ronald Krutz The CISSP PREP Guide (gold edition) pg 13

9 In which one of the following documents is the assignment of individual roles and responsibilities MOST appropriately defined?
A. Security policy
B. Enforcement guidelines
C. Acceptable use policy
D. Program manual
Answer: C
Explanation:
An acceptable use policy is a document that the employee signs in which the expectations, roles and responsibilities are outlined. Issue -specific policies address specific security issues that management feels need more detailed explanation and attention to make sure a comprehensive structure is built and all employees understand how they are to comply to these security issues. – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 62

10 Which of the following defines the intent of a system security policy?
A. A definition of the particular settings that have been determined to provide optimum security.
B. A brief, high-level statement defining what is and is not permitted during the operation of the system.
C. A definition of those items that must be excluded on the system.
D. A listing of tools and applications that will be used to protect the system.
Answer: A
Explanation:
“A system-specific policy presents the management’s CISSP dumps decisions that are closer to the actual computers, networks, applications, and data. This type of policy can provide an approved software list, which contains a list of applications that can be installed on individual workstations. This policy can describe how databases are to be protected, how computers are to be locked down, and how firewall, intrusion diction systems, and scanners are to be employed.” Pg 93 Shon Harris CISSP All-In-One Certification Exam Guide

11 When developing an information security policy, what is the FIRST step that should be taken?
A. Obtain copies of mandatory regulations.
B. Gain management approval.
C. Seek acceptance from other departments.
D. Ensure policy is compliant with current working practices.
Answer: B

12 Which one of the following should NOT be contained within a computer policy?
A. Definition of management expectations.
B. Responsibilities of individuals and groups for protected information.
C. Statement of senior executive support.
D. Definition of legal and regulatory controls.
Answer: B

13 Which one of the following is NOT a fundamental component of a Regulatory Security Policy?
A. What is to be done.
B. When it is to be done.
C. Who is to do it.
D. Why is it to be done
Answer: C
Explanation:
Regulatory Security policies are mandated to the organization but it up to them to implement it. “Regulatory – This policy is written to ensure that the organization is following standards set by a specific industry and is regulated by law. The policy type is detailed in nature and specific to a type of industry. This is used in financial institutions, health care facilities, and public utilities.” – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 93-94

14 Which one of the following statements describes management controls that are instituted to implement a security policy?
A. They prevent users from accessing any control function.
B. They eliminate the need for most auditing functions.
C. They may be administrative, procedural, or technical.
D. They are generally inexpensive to implement.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Administrative, physical, and technical controls should be utilized to achieve the management’s directives. – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 60

15 Which must bear the primary responsibility for determining the level of protection needed for information systems resources?
A. IS security specialists
B. Senior Management
C. Seniors security analysts
D. system auditors
Answer: B

16 Which of the following choices is NOT part of a security policy?
A. definition of overall steps of information security and the importance of security
B. statement of management intend, supporting the goals and principles of information security
C. definition of general and specific responsibilities for information security management
D. description of specific technologies used in the field of information security
Answer: D

17 In an organization, an Information Technology security function should:
A. Be a function within the information systems functions of an organization
B. Report directly to a specialized business unit such as legal, corporate security or insurance
C. Be lead by a Chief Security Officer and report directly to the CEO
D. Be independent but report to the Information Systems function
Answer: C

18 Which of the following embodies all the detailed actions that personnel are required to follow?
A. Standards
B. Guidelines
C. Procedures
D. Baselines
Answer: C

19 A significant action has a state that enables actions on an ADP system to be traced to individuals who may then be held responsible. The action does NOT include:
A. Violations of security policy.
B. Attempted violations of security policy.
C. Non-violations of security policy.
D. Attempted violations of allowed actions.
Answer: C
Explanation:
Significant action: The quality or state that enables actions on an ADP system to be traced to individuals who may then be held responsible. These actions include violations and attempted violations of the security policy, as well as allowed actions.

20 Network Security is a
A. Product
B. protocols
C. ever evolving process
D. quick-fix solution
Answer: C

21 Security is a process that is:
A. Continuous
B. Indicative
C. Examined
D. Abnormal
Answer: A
Explanation:
Security is a continuous process; as such you must closely monitor your systems on a regular basis. Log files are usually a good way to find an indication of abnormal activities. However some care must be exercise as to what will be logged and how the logs are protected. Having corrupted logs is about as good as not having logs at all.

22 What are the three fundamental principles of security?
A. Accountability, confidentiality, and integrity
B. Confidentiality, integrity, and availability
C. Integrity, availability, and accountability
D. Availability, accountability, and confidentiality
Answer: B

23 Which of the following prevents, detects, and corrects errors so that the integrity, availability, and confidentiality of transactions over networks may be maintained?
A. Communications security management and techniques
B. Networks security management and techniques
C. Clients security management and techniques
D. Servers security management and techniques
Answer: A

24 Making sure that the data is accessible when and where it is needed is which of the following?
A. Confidentiality
B. integrity
C. acceptability
D. availability
Answer: D

25 Which of the following describes CISSP study guide elements that create reliability and stability in networks and systems and which assures that connectivity is accessible when needed?
A. Availability
B. Acceptability
C. Confidentiality
D. Integrity
Answer: A

26 Most computer attacks result in violation of which of the following security properties?
A. Availability
B. Confidentiality
C. Integrity and control
D. All of the choices.
Answer: D
Explanation:
Most computer attacks only corrupt a system’s security in very specific ways. For example, certain attacks may enable a hacker to read specific files but don’t allow alteration of any system components. Another attack may allow a hacker to shut down certain system components but doesn’t allow access to any files. Despite the varied capabilities of computer attacks, they usually result in violation of only four different security properties: availability, confidentiality, integrity, and control.

27 Which of the following are objectives of an information systems security program?
A. Threats, vulnerabilities, and risks
B. Security, information value, and threats
C. Integrity, confidentiality, and availability.
D. Authenticity, vulnerabilities, and costs.
Answer: C
Explanation:
There are several small and large objectives of a security program, but the main three principles in all programs are confidentiality, integrity, and availability. These are referred to as the CIA triad. – Shon Harris All-in-one CISSP Certification Guide pg 62

28 An area of the Telecommunications and Network Security domain that directly affects the Information Systems Security tenet of Availability can be defined as:
A. Netware availability
B. Network availability
C. Network acceptability
D. Network accountability
Answer: B

29 The Structures, transmission methods, transport formats, and security measures that are used to provide integrity, availability, and authentication, and confidentiality for transmissions over private and public communications networks and media includes:
A. The Telecommunications and Network Security domain
B. The Telecommunications and Netware Security domain
C. The Technical communications and Network Security domain
D. The Telnet and Security domain
Answer: A
Explanation:
The Telecommunications, Network, and Internet Security Domain encompasses the structures, transmission methods, transport formats, and security measures used to provide integrity, availability, authentication, and confidentiality for transmissions over private and public communications networks and media.” Pg 515 Hansche: Official (ISC)2 Guide to the CISSP Exam

30 Which one of the following is the MOST crucial link in the computer security chain?
A. Access controls
B. People
C. Management
D. Awareness programs
Answer: C

A.No VTY password has been set.
B.No enable password has been set.
C.No console password has been set.
D.No enable secret password has been set.
E.The login command has not been set on CON 0.
F.The login command has not been set on the VTY ports.
Answer: A

2.A network administrator needs to create 29 subnetworks while maximizing the number of host addresses available on each subnet. How many bits must be borrowed from the host field of the network address to provide the required number of subnets with 640-821 the most hosts per subnet?
A.2
B.3
C.4
D.5
E.6
F.7
Answer: D

3.Refer to the exhibit. If host A sends an IP packet to host B, what will the OSI Layer 3 source address be in the packet when it reaches host B?

A.10.168.10.99
B.10.168.11.88
C.10.168.11.65
D.A1:A1:A1:A1:A1:A1
E.B2:B2:B2:B2:B2:B2
F.C3:C3:C3:C3:C3:C3
Answer: A

4.What is the difference between the Cisco router IOS commands show cdp neighbor detail and show cdp entry?
A.The show cdp neighbor detail command shows all neighbor information, while show cdp entry displays only one line of output for each neighbor.
B.The show cdp entry command shows neighbor information for specific neighbors only, while show cdp neighbor detail lists each neighbor with detailed output on each.
C.The show cdp entry command shows neighbor information for all neighbors with one line of output for each, while show cdp neighbor detail lists each neighbor with detailed output on each.
D.The show cdp neighbor detail command shows neighbor information for a single neighbor only, while show cdp entry displays detailed output on each neighbor known.
Answer: B

5.Refer to the exhibit. A person is trying to send a file from a host on Network A of the JAX Company to a server on Network Z of the XYZ Company. The file transfer fails. The host on Network A can communicate with other hosts on Network A. Which command, issued from router RTA, would be the most useful for troubleshooting this problem?

A.show flash:
B.show history
C.show version
D.show interfaces
E.show controllers serial
Answer: D

6.If NVRAM lacks boot system commands, where does the router look for the Cisco IOS by default?
A.ROM
B.RAM
C.Flash
D.bootstrap
E.startup­config
Answer: C

7.Which Layer 4 protocol is used for a Telnet connection?
A.IP
B.TCP
C.UDP
D.ICMP
E.DNS
Answer: B

8.What is the subnet address of 172.16.159.159/22?
A.172.16.0.0
B.172.16.128.0
C.172.16.156.0
D.172.16.159.0
E.172.16.159.128
F.172.16.192.0
Answer: C

9.What is the purpose 640-821 dumps of flow control?
A.to ensure data is retransmitted if an acknowledgment is not received
B.to reassemble segments in the correct order at the destination device
C.to provide a means for the receiver to govern the amount of data sent by the sender
D.to regulate the size of each segment
Answer: C

10.During the boot sequence, a 2600 series router needs to locate and load an operating system. What is the default order the router uses to find an operating system?
A.Flash, TFTP server, ROM
B.Flash, TFTP server, RAM
C.Flash, NVRAM, TFTP server
D.ROM, TFTP server, Flash
E.Flash, ROM, TFTP server
Answer: A

11.What is the subnet address for the IP address 172.19.20.23/28?
A.172.19.20.0
B.172.19.20.15
C.172.19.20.16
D.172.19.20.20
E.172.19.20.32
Answer: C

12.Which two statements describe the IP address 10.16.3.65/23? (Choose two.)
A.The subnet address is 10.16.3.0 255.255.254.0.
B.The lowest host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.1 255.255.254.0.
C.The last valid host address in the subnet is 10.16.2.254 255.255.254.0
D.The broadcast address of the subnet is 10.16.3.255 255.255.254.0. E.The network is not subnetted.
Answer: B, D

13.An administrator issues the show ip interface s0/0 command and the output displays the line Serial0/0 is up, line protocol is upWhat does “line protocol is up” specifically indicate about the interface?
A.Keepalives are being received on the interface.
B.The cable is attached properly.
C.CDP has discovered the connected device.
D.A carrier detect signal has been received from the connected device.
E.IP is correctly configured on the interface.
Answer: A

14.The Hub and Spoke routers are directly connected through their serial interfaces for purposes of testing. Based on the output shown in the exhibit, what must be done to make the serial line operational?

A.Start the clock on the Hub router.
B.Change the IP address on the Spoke router.
C.Configure the serial 0/0 interface on the Spoke router with a clockrate.
D.Replace the broken cable between the two devices.
E.Use the no shutdown command on the Hub router.
Answer: C

15.Which command will reinitialize the router and totally replace the running configuration with the current startup configuration?
A.router# reload
B.router# copy tftp startup­config
C.router# copy startup­config running­config
D.router# copy running­config flash
E.router# setup F.router# restart
Answer: A

16.Refer to the graphic. What is the purpose of the two numbers shown following the exec­timeout command?

A.If no commands have been typed in 55 seconds, the console connection will be closed.
B.If no router activity has been detected in one hour and 55 minutes, the console will be locked out.
C.If no commands have been typed in one minute and 55 seconds, the console connection will be closed.
D.If connected to the router by Telnet, input must be detected within one hour and 55 seconds or the connection will be closed.
E.If connected to the router by Telnet, input must be detected within one minute and 55 seconds or the connection will be closed.
Answer: C

17.How will a Cisco 2600 series router respond if the conditions listed below exist during the boot process? 1) The IOS image in flash is missing. 2) No network connectivity is available. 3) The router fallback IOS image is corrupt.
A.The router will enter setup mode.
B.The router will enter ROM monitor mode.
C.The router will enter global configuration mode.
D.The boot will hang until an IOS is available.
E.The router will enter the prompted setup dialog.
Answer: B

18.A router receives a packet on interface 172.16.45.66/26. The source IP of the packet is
172.16.45.126/26 and the destination is 172.16.46.191/26. How will the router handle the packet?
A.The destination is a host on another subnet, so the router will not forward the packet.
B.The destination is a host on the same subnet, so the router will forward the packet.
C.The destination is a broadcast address, so the router will not forward the packet.
D.The destination is a network address, so the router will forward the packet.
Answer: C

19.Host A needs to communicate with the email server shown in the graphic. What address will be placed in the destination address field of the frame when it leaves Host A?

A.the MAC address of Host A
B.the MAC address of Switch 1
C.the MAC address of E0 of the router
D.the MAC address of E1 of the router
E.the MAC address of Switch 2
F.the MAC address of the email server
Answer: C

20.What is the default configuration register setting on most Cisco routers?
A.0×2210
B.0×2104
C.0×2102
D.0×2012
E.0×2142
Answer: C

21.Which statements are true 640-821 study guide regarding ICMP packets? (Choose two.)
A.They acknowledge receipt of TCP segments.
B.They guarantee datagram delivery.
C.They can provide hosts with information about network problems.
D.They are encapsulated within IP datagrams.
E.They are encapsulated within UDP datagrams.
Answer: C, D

22.Which statements accurately describe CDP? (Choose three.)
A.CDP is an IEEE standard protocol.
B.CDP is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
C.CDP is a datalink layer protocol.
D.CDP is a network layer protocol.
E.CDP can discover directly connected neighboring Cisco devices.
F.CDP can discover Cisco devices that are not directly connected.
Answer: B, C, E

23.Which types of cables are required to interconnect the devices shown in the graphic? (Choose three.)

A.V.35 cable
B.crossover cable
C.USB cable
D.RJ­11 cable
E.rollover cable
F.straight­through cable
Answer: B, E, F

24.Why is the show processes command used on a router before a debug command is entered?
A.to verify the IOS version that is running
B.to verify the amount of space in flash memory
C.to view the number of timers that are currently in use
D.to verify that the CPU utilization is low enough to handle the effects of a debug command
E.to check if the load meter file has enough space left to store the output of the debug command
Answer: D

25.Which of the following commands displays the configurable parameters and statistics of all interfaces on a router?
A.show running­config
B.show startup­config
C.show interfaces
D.show processes
E.show versions
Answer: C

2. Your company has a domain controller server that runs Windows Server 2008. The server is routinely backed up over the network from a dedicated backup server that runs Microsoft Windows Server 2003. Your manager asks you to prepare the domain controller for disaster recovery independent of the routine backup procedures. You attempt to back up the system state data for the domain controller, but you are unable to launch the Backup utility. You need to back up system state data from the Windows Server 2008 domain controller server. What should you do?
A. Add your user account to the local Backup Operators group.
B. Use the Server Manager feature to install the Windows Server Backup feature.
C. Use the Server Manager feature to install the Removable Storage Manager feature.
D. Deactivate the backup job that is configured to back up the Windows Server 2008 domain controller server on the Windows Server 2003 backup server.
Answer: B

3. Your company has an Active Directory forest that has six domains. The company has 15 sites. The company requires a new distributed application that uses a custom application directory partition named ResData for data replication. The application is installed on one member server in five sites. You need to configure the five member servers to receive the ResData application directory partition for data replication. What should you do?
A. Run the Dcpromo utility on the five member servers.
B. Run the Regsvr32 command on the five member servers.
C. Run the Wbadmin command on the five member servers.
D. Run the RacAgent utility on the five member servers.
Answer: A

4. Your company has an Active Directory forest. The company requires a new distributed application that uses a custom application directory partition named ResData. You need to implement the ResData application directory partition for data replication. Which are the two utilities that you can run to achieve this goal? (Each correct answer presents a complete solution. Choose two.)
A. Dnscmd
B. Ntdsutil
C. Wbadmin
D. RacAgent
E. Regsvr32
Answer: A,B

5. Your company has an Active Directory forest as shown in the following table.
There are 10 domain controllers in each domain. You use 70-649 dumps the Remote Desktop utility from your workstation in the ma.corp.contoso.com domain.
You are modifying the folder permissions on a file server named FS1 in the ca.corp.contoso.com domain.
When you use the Microsoft Windows Explorer utility to access the Security tab of the folders, you discover that some entries start with S-1-5-21 and no account name is listed.
You need to ensure that the Security tab of the folders display the account names.
What should you do?
A. Configure the FS1 server as a Global Catalog server.
B. Modify the schema to enable replication of the friendlynames attribute to the Global Catalog.
C. Move the RID Master role in the ma.corp.contoso.com domain to a domain controller that does not hold the Global Catalog.
D. Move the Infrastructure Master role in the ma.corp.contoso.com domain to a domain controller that does not contain the Global Catalog.
Answer: D

6. Your company has three Active Directory domains in a single forest. You install a new Active DirectoryCenabled application. The application extends the Active Directory schema with new user attributes. You discover a significant increase in the Active Directory replication traffic to the Global Catalogs after the new application is installed. You need to prevent the new attributes from being replicated to the Global Catalogs. What should you do?
A. Uninstall the application.
B. Delete the new attributes from the Active Directory schema.
C. Change replication interval to 9990 for the DEFAULTIPSITELINK object.
D. Modify the properties in the Active Directory schema for the new attributes.
Answer: D

7. Your company has a branch office that is configured as a separate Active Directory site. The site has an Active Directory domain controller. The Active Directory site requires a local Global Catalog server to support a new application. You need to configure the domain controller in the branch office as a Global Catalog server. Which tool should you use?
A. The Dcpromo.exe utility
B. The Computer Management console
C. The Active Directory Domains and Trusts console
D. The Active Directory Sites and Services console
E. The Server Manager console
Answer: D

8. Your company, Contoso, Ltd., has an Active Directory forest that has 12 domains. The company has 24 offices. One of the branch offices has 40 users. The users are members of a universal group that grants them access to resources in all the 24 offices. The branch office has a domain controller named Contoso17. The branch office is connected to the corporate network by a 128-Kbps WAN connection. The WAN connection is available only during business hours. Users report that they are unable to log on to the network after business hours. You need to enable user logons at any time of the day. What should you do?
A. Configure Contoso17 as a bridgehead server for the branch office site.
B. Enable universal group membership caching for the branch office site.
C. Decrease the replication interval on the site link that connects the branch office to the corporate network.
D. Increase the replication interval on the site link that connects the branch office to the corporate network.
E. Deploy a read-only domain controller (RODC) at the branch office site.
Answer: B

9. Your company has a main office and five branch offices. 70-649 study guide The Active Directory forest of the company is configured as a single domain that has four sites. The domain has a server with Active Directory Certificate Services (AD CS) installed and configured as an Enterprise Root Certificate Authority (CA). The Enterprise Root CA certificate is installed on all computers in the domain. You install a new application on all computers. The company security policy requires that the application must use only Lightweight Directory Access Protocol over Secure Sockets Layer (LDAPS). You discover that the application is unable to connect to a global catalog server in a remote site. You need to test the LDAPS connection between the client computer and the global catalog server in the remote site. What should you do?
A. Run the Ldp.exe tool.
B. Run the Repadmin.exe tool.
C. Run the Certification Authority console.
D. Run the Active Directory Sites and Services console.
Answer: A

10. You have a Windows server core installation of Windows Server 2008. The installation was completed by using the default settings. You plan to make the server accessible to the domain users. You need to change the server name. You also need to join the server to the domain. Which tool should you run?
A. Netsh.exe
B. Netdom.exe
C. Ocsetup.exe
D. Oclist.exe
Answer: B

2. View the Exhibit and examine the structure of the MARKS_DETAILS and MARKStables.

Which is the best method to load data from the MARKS_DETAILStable to the MARKStable?
A. Pivoting INSERT
B. Unconditional INSERT
C. Conditional ALL INSERT
D. Conditional FIRST INSERT
Answer: A

3. Which three statements are true regarding single-row functions? (Choose three.)
A. They can accept only one argument.
B. They can be nested up to only two levels.
C. They can return multiple values of more than one data type.
D. They can be used in SELECT, WHERE, and ORDER BY clauses.
E. They can modify the data type of the argument that is referenced.
F. They can accept a column name, expression, variable name, or a user-supplied constant as arguments.
Answer: D, E, F

4. Which two statements are true regarding operators used with subqueries? (Choose two.)
A. The NOT IN operator is equivalent to IS NULL.
B. The <ANY operator means less than the maximum.
C. =ANY and =ALL operators have the same functionality.
D. The IN operator cannot be used in single-row subqueries.
E. The NOT operator can be used with IN, ANY and ALL operators.
Answer: B, E

5. Which two statements are true regarding 1Z0-047 dumps views? (Choose two.)
A. A simple view in which column aliases have been used cannot be updated.
B. A subquery used in a complex view definition cannot contain group functions or joins.
C. Rows cannot be deleted through a view if the view definition contains the DISTINCT keyword.
D. Rows added through a view are deleted from the table automatically when the view is dropped.
E. The OR REPLACE option is used to change the definition of an existing view without dropping and re-creating it.
F. The WITH CHECK OPTION constraint can be used in a view definition to restrict the columns displayed through the view.
Answer: C, E

6. Which two statements are true about sequences created in a single instance database? (Choose two.)
A. The numbers generated by a sequence can be used only for one table.
B. DELETE would remove a sequence from the database.
C. CURRVAL is used to refer to the last sequence number that has been generated.
D. When the MAXVALUE limit for a sequence is reached, you can increase the MAXVALUE limit by using the ALTER SEQUENCE statement.
E. When a database instance shuts down abnormally, the sequence numbers that have been cached but not used would be available once again when the database instance is restarted.
Answer: C, D

7. Which statements are correct regarding indexes? (Choose all that apply.)
A. When a table is dropped, the corresponding indexes are automatically dropped.
B. For each DML operation performed, the corresponding indexes are automatically updated.
C. Indexes should be created on columns that are frequently referenced as part of an expression.
D. A non-deferrable PRIMARY KEY or UNIQUE KEY constraint in a table automatically creates a unique index.
Answer: A, B, D

8. The ORDERS table belongs to the user OE. OE has granted the SELECT privilege on the ORDERS table to the user HR.
Which statement would create a synonym ORD so 1Z0-047 study guide that HR can execute the following query successfully? SELECT * FROM ord;
A. CREATE SYNONYM ord FOR orders; This command is issued by OE.
B. CREATE PUBLIC SYNONYM ord FOR orders; This command is issued by OE.
C. CREATE SYNONYM ord FOR oe.orders; This command is issued by the database administrator.
D. CREATE PUBLIC SYNONYM ord FOR oe.orders; This command is issued by the database administrator.
Answer: D

9. Which statement is true regarding synonyms?
A. Synonyms can be created for tables but not views.
B. Synonyms are used to reference only those tables that are owned by another user.
C. A public synonym and a private synonym can exist with the same name for the same table.
D. The DROP SYNONYM statement removes the synonym, and the status of the table on which the synonym has been created becomes invalid.
Answer: C

10. ORD is a private synonym for the OE. ORDERS table. The user OE issues the following command:
DROP SYNONYM ord;
Which statement is true regarding the above SQL statement?
A. Only the synonym would be dropped.
B. The synonym would be dropped and the corresponding table would become invalid.
C. The synonym would be dropped and the packages referring to the synonym would be dropped.
D. The synonym would be dropped and any PUBLIC synonym with the same name becomes invalid.
Answer: A

2. The database is running in ARCHIVELOG mode and the FORMAT option is not configured in RMAN for disk backups. You configured the flash recovery area location and size by using the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST and DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST_SIZE initialization 1Z0-043 parameters.
Which statement is correct in this scenario?
A. If no other destination is configured for recovery files, then RMAN places the control file autobackups in the flash recovery area by default.
B. If any local destinations for LOG_ARCHIVE_DEST_n are set, then archived redo logs are stored in these destinations as well as in the flash recovery area.
C. If the flash recovery area location is configured using the DB_RECOVERY_FILE_DEST initialization parameter, then the RMAN backup of Oracle managed datafiles (OMF) only will go to the flash recovery area by default.
D. If the FORMAT option to the RMAN BACKUP command is specified, then RMAN creates backup pieces and
image copies in the flash recovery area with names in the Oracle Managed Files (OMF) format.
Answer: A

3. You defined the Recovery Manager (RMAN) retention policy to recovery window of 7 days by executing the following command:
RMAN> CONFIGURE RETENTION POLICY TO RECOVERY WINDOW OF 7 DAYS; When a backup is performed, what would be the status of this backup after seven days?
A. The backup would be marked as invalid.
B. The backup would be marked as obsolete.
C. The backup would be removed from the media.
D. The backup would be removed from the RMAN repository.
Answer: B

4. You set the recovery window to seven days and the backup optimization to ON using the CONFIGURE command of Recovery Manager (RMAN). The most recent backup of the TOOLS tablespace to disk was taken on January 3. The TOOLS tablespace is read­only. On February 21, when you execute a command
to back up all the tablespaces to disk, you find that RMAN backs up the TOOLS tablespace also, even though the contents of the tablespace have not changed after the backup on January 3. Because there are no changes made to the TOOLS tablespace, you decide that the tablespace should not be backed up by RMAN. What can you to do skip backing up the TOOLS tablespace without changing the current backup optimization setting?
A. configure a default device for RMAN backups
B. temporarily disable the retention policy for RMAN backups
C. configure automatic channel allocation for RMAN backups
D. use the CONFIGURE command to reconfigure the recovery window to 60 days
Answer: B

5. In Recovery Manager (RMAN), you have set control file autobackup to ON by using the following command:
CONFIGURE CONTROLFILE AUTOBACKUP ON;
Which two events would cause the control file to be backed up automatically? (Choose two.)
A. a tablespace is taken offline
B. the database instance is restarted
C. a new data file is added to an existing tablespace
D. a successful backup is recorded in the RMAN repository
E. the RMAN connection is disconnected from the target database
Answer: C, D

6. In the parameter file of your production database, the CONTROL_FILE_RECORD_KEEP_TIME parameter is set to 31. What would be the impact of this setting on the backup that is being performed by using Recovery Manager (RMAN)?
A. The backup would be retained on the media for 31 days.
B. The backup would be maintained in the recovery catalog for 31 days.
C. The backup metadata would be retained in the control file for 31 days.
D. The backup metadata would be maintained in the recovery catalog for 31 days.
E. Automatic backups of the control file will be retained in the flash recovery area for 31 days.
Answer: C

7. You observe that the senior database administrator always uses the following command when connecting to Recovery Manager (RMAN), and then starts executing commands to backup the database files:
$ rman target /
What would be the effect of this command?
A. RMAN would use the current operating system location to place the backup.
B. RMAN would use the control file of the target database to maintain the backup.
C. RMAN would use the recovery catalog of the target database to maintain the backup.
D. RMAN would use the control file of the target database to maintain the backup metadata.
E. RMAN would use the recovery catalog of the target database to maintain the backup metadata.
Answer: D

8. You execute the following command to perform a backup by using Recovery Manager (RMAN): RMAN> run
{allocate channel c1 type sbt;
backup datafile 1;
\
}
The command errors out. A part of the error message is as follows: RMAN­03009: failure of allocate command on c1 channel
ORA­19554: error allocating device, device type: SBT_TAPE, device name: What could explain why the statement failed?
A. sbt is not a valid device type.
B. Media Management Library was not loaded.
C. The sbt device cannot be used for data file backups.
D. No path was defined in the ALLOCATE CHANNEL command.
E. The channel is currently being used by another RMAN session.
Answer: B

9. View the Exhibit.
You executed the following command to perform a backup of the USERS tablespace: BACKUP TABLESPACE USERS;
Which three types of files are backed up? (Choose three.)
A. password file
B. online redo log files
C. the current control file
D. archived redo log files
E. the current server parameter file
F. all the data files belonging to the USERS tablespace
G. data files belonging to the USERS tablespace and all the default tablespaces
Answer: C, E, F

10. You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN) to perform a backup of the
DETTBS tablespace:
RMAN> BACKUP TABLESPACE DETTBS;
Under which conditions would this command execute successfully? (Choose all that apply.)
A. The database is in NOMOUNT state.
B. The database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is online.
C. The database is in ARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is offline.
D. The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is online.
E. The database is in NOARCHIVELOG mode and the tablespace is offline.
Answer: B, C, E

11. Your database is functioning in NOARCHIVELOG mode. Your database contains 15 tablespaces. You want to use Recovery Manager (RMAN) to perform backups.
Which two backups would you be 1Z0-043 dumps able to perform when the database is being accessed by users?
(Choose two.)
A. backup of offline tablespaces
B. backup of read­only tablespaces
C. backup of system­critical tablespaces
D. backup of online, locally managed tablespaces
E. backup of read/write dictionary­managed tablespaces
Answer: A, B

12. Which two statements regarding compressed backups in Recovery Manager (RMAN) are true? (Choose two.)
A. Backup compression is disabled by default.
B. Backup compression applies to only backup sets.
C. Backup compression applies to only image copies.
D. Backup compression cannot be enabled using the CONFIGURE command.
E. Backup compression can be used with both backup sets and image copies.
F. Backup compression works only if the COMPATIBILITY parameter is set to 9.0.0.0 or higher.
Answer: A, B

13. What purpose would you achieve by enabling the block change tracking feature?
A. eliminate the necessity for backups
B. perform optimized image copy backups
C. perform optimized incremental backups
D. enable checkpoint (CKPT) to perform checkpointing at every block change
E. enable database writer (DBWn) to write changed blocks to data files faster
Answer: C

14. You are managing a database for which incremental backups can be very time consuming. In order to perform optimized incremental backups you enable the block change tracking feature.
How would you instruct RMAN to use the block change tracking feature when performing incremental backups?
A. You need to mention it with every BACKUP command.
B. You need to configure it using the CONFIGURE command.
C. The block change tracking feature is used automatically by RMAN.
D. You need to set the necessary initialization parameters to direct RMAN to use the feature.
Answer: C

15. You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN) against your Oracle 10g database:
RMAN> REPORT NEED BACKUP days 3; What would be the output of this command?
A. a list of files that require a backup within three days
B. a list of files that have not been backed up for three days
C. a list of files that RMAN recommends be backed up only once in every three days, based on low volatility
D. a list of files for which a backup has already been performed and may need a backup after three days
Answer: B

16. The backup retention policy is configured as RECOVERY WINDOW 2. You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN) against your database:
RMAN> REPORT OBSOLETE; What would you see in the output?
A. a list of all the expired backups and copies
B. a list of all those files that have been deleted in the last two days
C. a list of all those files that have been recovered within the last two days
D. a list of backups and copies that are outside the range covered by the current retention policy
Answer: D

17. Last night, a media failure caused the loss of a temporary file that belongs to your database. Which two things may happen this morning when you try to open your database? (Choose two.)
A. The database opens normally.
B. The database prompts for a database recovery.
C. The database writer writes to a trace file, indicating that the temporary file is not found.
D. The database gets mounted and throws an error indicating that the temporary file requires recovery.
Answer: A, C

18. A user executes a query on the EMP table, which contains thousands of rows, to get details about employees in one of the departments. The user receives the following error:
SQL> SELECT ename FROM emp WHERE deptno=10 ORDER BY sal; SELECT ename FROM emp WHERE deptno=10 ORDER BY sal
*
ERROR at line 1:
ORA­01157: cannot identify/lock data file 201 ­ see DBWR trace file ORA­01110: data file 201: ‘/u01/app/oracle/oradata/orcl/temp01.dbf’ What is a possible reason?
A. The tempfile belonging to the default temporary tablespace is missing.
B. The database is opened in restricted mode, so queries are not allowed.
C. The default temporary tablespace required to execute the query is offline.
D. The default temporary tablespace required to execute the query is dropped.
E. The default temporary tablespace required to execute the query is read­only.
Answer: A

19.You are working on a database, where you have three redo log groups. When the database is down for
a backup, an operating system (OS) user deletes all the redo log files in a group. What will happen when you open your database?
A. The instance starts and the database opens because two redo log groups still exist.
B. Before the instance starts, you receive an error about the missing redo log files of a group.
C. The instance starts and the database opens with an error message written to the alert log file.
D. The instance starts and the database opens, but every attempt to write to redo log files fails with an error.
E. The instance starts, the database is mounted, but efforts to open the database fail, and an error about the missing redo log group is displayed.
Answer: E

20.A media failure has occurred. This has resulted in all the members of the next log group being rendered inaccessible to the log writer process (LGWR) at a log switch. How does this failure affect the operational database?
A. The database re­creates the missing redo log files automatically.
B. The database continues to function normally with the existing files.
C. The database allows only queries; no other statements are allowed.
D. The database returns an error and the database instance shuts down.
E. The user sessions that generate redo logs are terminated automatically.
Answer: D

21.A redo log file is corrupted while the database is open; as a consequence, database operations are stopped because archiving cannot continue.What would you do to solve the problem?
A. clear the redo log group
B. perform redo log file import
C. perform an incomplete recovery
D. perform a redo log recovery using Recovery Manager (RMAN)
E. shut down the database and open the database in the NOARCHIVELOG mode
Answer: A

22.You lost a data file that belongs to an index tablespace in your database, which operates in
ARCHIVELOG mode. Loss of the data file resulted in increased response time on your queries.Which two options would you use to solve this problem? (Choose two.)
A. restore the lost data file from the backup, and then flash back the database
B. restore the data file pertaining to index tablespace, and then recover the tablespace
C. restore all the data files, and then perform an incomplete recovery to get the tablespace back
D. restore all the data files, and then perform an incomplete recovery using the backup control file
E. drop and re­create the index tablespace, and then re­create all of the indexes in that tablespace
Answer: B, E

23.You lost the index tablespace in your database. You are not able to use tablespace point­in­time recovery on the index tablespace. What could be the reason for this?
A. The index tablespace contains bitmap indexes.
B. The index tablespace contains more than one data file.
C. The index tablespace supports only complete recovery.
D. The index tablespace is not a dictionary­managed tablespace.
E. There is a dependency relationship between a table and its indexes.
Answer: E

24.You lost the index tablespace in your database. You decided to re­create the index tablespace and the indexes in the tablespace.What methods 1Z0-043 study guide can you use to re­create the indexes? (Choose all that apply.)
A. Data Pump
B. SQL scripts
C. SQL*Loader
D. Flashback database
E. Recovery Manager (RMAN) script
Answer: A, B

25.You lost the PRODSTD tablespace, which was read­only. The tablespace was read­only when the last backup was taken. How would you recover the tablespace?
A. restore the tablespace from the backup
B. restore the tablespace from the backup, and then perform an incomplete recovery
C. restore the tablespace from the backup, and then apply all the redo information
D. restore all the data files in the database, and then perform an incomplete recovery
Answer: A

26.One of the tablespaces is read­only in your database. The loss of all control files forced you to re­create the control file.Which operation do you need to perform after re­creating the control file and opening the database?
A. drop and re­create the read­only tablespaces
B. rename the read­only data files to their correct file names
C. change the tablespace status from read/write to read­only
D. re­create the read­only tablespace because it is automatically removed
Answer: B

27.You have a read­only tablespace on read­only media. You want to perform a media recovery on the existing data files, but using a backup control file. The backup control file indicates that the status of the read­only tablespace was read/write when the control file was backed up.What should you consider?
A. drop the read­only tablespace and re­create the tablespace after recovery
B. take data files from the read­only tablespace offline before performing a recovery
C. perform a recovery; status of the tablespace in control file will be changed automatically
D. recovery using backup control file is not possible, so restore all the files from the last full database backup, and
then open the database
Answer: B

28.The loss of the control file forced you to re­create the control file. After re­creating it and opening the database, you find that some of the data files are named as MISSINGnnnnn, where nnnnn is a five­digit number starting with 0.What could be the possible reason?
A. These are the data files that are corrupted.
B. There is no SYSAUX tablespace in your database
C. There is a read­only tablespace in your database.
D. These are the data files that cannot be recovered.
Answer: C

29.You executed the following command in Recovery Manager (RMAN):RMAN> RESTORE CONTROLFILE;
Which operation must you perform before this command is executed?
A. back up the control file to trace
B. bring database to the MOUNT state
C. open a connection to the RMAN recovery catalog, which contains the RMAN metadata for the target database
D. set the database ID (DBID), but only if the DB_NAME parameter associated with the target database is unique in the recovery catalog
Answer: C

30.You are connected to Recovery Manager (RMAN) without a recovery catalog. There is no copy of the control file available. You want to restore the control file from an autobackup. To retrieve the autobackup, you need the database ID (DBID).In which two sources would you find the DBID? (Choose two.)
A. the trace file
B. the alert log file
C. an RMAN session log file
D. the server parameter file
E. the formatted name of a control file autobackup
Answer: C, E

2. You are in the middle of a transaction 1Z0-042 and very crucial data has been modified. Because of a hardware failure, the instance has shut down before synchronizing all the database files.
Which two statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. On startup, SMON coordinates instance recovery.
B. On startup, CKPT coordinates instance recovery.
C. On startup, use RMAN to perform instance recovery.
D. Uncommitted changes will be rolled back after the database is opened.
E. On startup, perform media recovery and then instance recovery.
F. On startup, all the files will be synchronized and you get both committed and uncommitted data.
Answer: A, D

3. You are using the backup scheduler in Enterprise Manager (EM) to schedule a backup of your database.
Which type of script does the backup scheduler generate?
A. SQL script
B. PL/SQL script
C. Operating System (OS) script
D. Enterprise Manager (EM) script
E. Recovery Manager (RMAN) script
Answer: E

4. You executed the following command to export the EMPLOYEES table from a remote machine:
$ EXPDP hr/hr@data.us.oracle.com
DUMPFILE=my_dir:exp_hr.log
LOGFILE=data_pump_dir:log_hr.log
TABLES=employees
What would be the outcome of this command?
A. The command would execute successfully and the export dump file would be created in the destination of the directory object MY_DIR.
B. The command would execute successfully. But log file would not be created as DATA_PUMP_DIR directory is only accessible to user with SYSDBA privilege.
C. The command fails with an error because 1Z0-042 dumps DATA_PUMP_DIR directory have higher precedence over the per-file directory.
D. The command fails with an error because no absolute path is specified for log file and dumpfile.
Answer: A

5. Which step do you need to perform to enable a user with the SYSDBA privilege to log in as SYSDBA in iSQL*Plus?
A. The user must be granted the database administrator (DBA) privilege.
B. The user must be listed in the password file for the authentication.
C. No special setup is needed for the user to connect as SYSDBA in iSQL*Plus.
D. Set up a user in the Oracle Application Server Containers for J2EE (OC4J) user manager, and grant the webDba role to the user.
Answer: D

6. Which two statements regarding the LOGGING clause of the CREATE TABLESPACE. .. statement are correct? (Choose two.)
A. This clause is not valid for a temporary or undo tablespace.
B. If the tablespace is in the NOLOGGING mode, no operation on the tablespace will generate redo.
C. The tablespace will be in the NOLOGGING mode by default, if not specified while creating a tablespace.
D. The tablespace-level logging attribute can be overridden by logging specifications at the table, index, materialized view, materialized view log, and partition levels.
Answer: A, D

7. Which two statements are true about the primary key constraint in a table? (Choose two.)
A. It is not possible to disable the primary key constraint.
B. It is possible to have more than one 1Z0-042 study guide primary key constraint in a single table.
C. The primary key constraint can be referred by only one foreign key constraint.
D. The primary key constraint can be imposed by combining more than one column.
E. The non-deferrable primary key constraint creates an unique index on the primary key column if it is not already indexed.
Answer: D, E

8. You want the user APP_DBA to administer the Oracle database from a remote machine. APP_DBA is granted the SYSDBA privilege to perform administrative tasks on the database.
Which file is used by the Oracle database server to authenticate APP_DBA?
A. control file
B. password file
C. listener controller file
D. control file and password file
Answer: B

9. Which three statements are true regarding the logical structure of the Oracle database? (Choose three.)
A. Each segment contains one or more extents.
B. Multiple tablespaces can share single data file.
C. A data block is the smallest unit of I/O for data files.
D. It is possible to have tablespaces of different block sizes in a database.
E. Each data block in the database always corresponds to one OS block.
Answer: A, C, D

10. Which is the memory area that is created when a dedicated server process is started, and contains data and control information for that server process?
A. SGA
B. PGA
C. Shared Pool
D. Streams Pool
Answer: B

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